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Seems to me that when you sign a contract that has certain language in it, it is assumed that you agreed to the language when you signed it. In the private business world when you sign a contract you own it. If I sign a contract for a mortgage on my house and the language of the contract says the mortgage is at 8 % interest, can I go back 4 years later and say that even though the language is in the contract the banker never spoke to me about it?
Seems like common sense issues differ in the union world as opposed to the real world.
Please explain the inappropriate content below.
